Question

I would like to know, if you are so "compelled to put together another Gospel Message", then why would you not use the only word of God that gives the Gospel Message?

It does state in Revelation 22:18-19

Rev 22:18-19   18  For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book:
  19  And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book."  (KJV)

I don't know about you, but when I read these words in The Authorized Version of the King James Bible, and then compare it to something like this:

Rev 22:18-19   18  I testify to everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book, if anyone adds to them, may God add to him the plagues which are written in this book.
  19  If anyone takes away from the words of the book of this prophecy, may God take away his part from the tree of life, and out of the holy city, which are written in this book."  (quoted from the World English Bible)

Then it seems to me like somebody has added and taken away in just those two verses.  If it is worth telling someone about Christ, then isn't it worth telling them the truth, with all of the Lords truthful and inspired words?

Something to Pray about


Answer

From your question, I felt like you were saying that since I did not use the Authorized Version of the King James Bible (which you said is the only word of God), then I was not communicating the truth.  If I misunderstood what you were saying, then I am sorry.  Nevertheless, I will respond.

The gospel message I put together is founded on 1Cor 15:1-5 which states (in the KJV):

1Cor 15:1-5
(KJV)		   1  Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received, and wherein ye stand;
  2  By which also ye are saved, if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain.
  3  For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;
  4  And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:
  5  And that he was seen of Cephas, then of the twelve:

In this passage, Paul is declaring the absolute truth of the gospel message that saves us.  That message is: However, I had used the New King James Version which reads like so:

1Cor 15:1-5
(NKJV)		   1  Moreover, brethren, I declare to you the gospel which I preached to you, which also you received and in which you stand,
  2  By which also you are saved, if you hold fast that word which I preached to you--unless you believed in vain.
  3  For I delivered to you first of all that which I also received: that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures,
  4  And that He was buried, and that He rose again the third day according to the Scriptures,
  5  And that He was seen by Cephas, then by the twelve.

From this version, I find the same absolute truth of the gospel message that saves us. 

My brother, let us please be reasonable.  The gospel message of what Jesus has done for us is clearly communicated in both versions.  It is exactly the same truth.  Now, it is true that some of the words within the KJV do differ from some of the words within the NKJV.  Does this mean that one version is true and the other is not?  Absolutely not!  The reason for the change is not because the truth is changed, but because the English language has changed.

I also believe the Bible teaches there is one truth and one word of God.  However, that one truth is not the King James Version of the Bible, but the Word Himself, Jesus Christ.  (John 1:1-14, John 14:6)

In other words, which one shall we worship? 1)  Jesus?
2)  Or one of the translations of the historical record of Jesus?

Let us consider what Jesus said,

John 8:31-32
   31  ... If ye continue in my word, then are ye my disciples indeed;
  32  And ye shall know the truth, and the truth shall make you free.

If the KJV is the only word of God, then what has happened to all the Christians prior to 1611?  Not having the KJV truth, were none of them made free?  Also, what about all the Christians today who read the other 2200 non-English translations of the Bible (many who do not even know the English language)?  Is it then impossible for them to be saved?


Paul teaches us in 1Timothy how we should behave.  He sums up his epistle with these comments:

1Tim 6:3-5
   3  If any man teach otherwise, and consent not to wholesome words, even the words of our Lord Jesus Christ, and to the doctrine which is according to godliness;
  4  He is proud, knowing nothing, but doting about questions and strifes of words, whereof cometh envy, strife, railings, evil surmisings,
  5  Perverse disputings of men of corrupt minds, and destitute of the truth, supposing that gain is godliness: from such withdraw thyself.

Let us please not divide over whether or not the KJV is the only word of God, but let us be one in God through the Lord Jesus Christ.  Again, let us, as those to whom the Father has given Christ, be one, as Christ and the Father are one.


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